Tuesday, October 20, 2015
It is interesting to note that in most of Tolkien's works regarding Middle-Earth, every story is kept to a single realm. All the magic and adventures, all the characters and fantastical creatures are in Middle-Earth. However, in Smith, Faery is treated almost as another dimension. It is vague and unclear how Feary is reached and where it is. Why do you think Tolkien is inconsistent in this manner? What is his purpose in making Faery some removed land rather than keeping the story all in one realm.